So Man Utd had just 26% of possession and on Saturday

according to CH he knew that "Swansea would have the majority of possession". Isn't that just like accepting they're better than us before a ball is kicked? Does it HAVE to be this way? Would Ferguson have 'accepted' this when manager at Man U? Just can't get my head round this. If two teams are from the same division why be resigned to the fact that the opposition will have more possession? No wonder we're so utterly useless away from home or am I missing the point?

Posted By: Chopper on April 2nd 2014 at 10:11:18

Message Thread

So Man Utd had just 26% of possession and on Saturday (NCFC) - Chopper, Apr 2, 10:11:18
- Fergie wouldn't have given a sh*t (NCFC) - mr carra, Apr 2, 10:46:51
- Yes you have missed the point (NCFC) - Cart Gap Disco, Apr 2, 10:23:42
  - But what you're saying misses the point about one of the clearest (NCFC) - Chopper, Apr 2, 10:37:36
    - Possession is just one tactical approach - look at Liverpool in the last couple of seasons (NCFC) - Mecagoenti, Apr 2, 11:19:38
      - And Villa... quick and deadly counter attacks at pace (NCFC) - phrankin, Apr 2, 11:54:16
    - Tacking and possession are not the same. (NCFC) - Cart Gap Disco, Apr 2, 11:05:16
      - Herman's Hermits? (n/m) (NCFC) - Garry Brooke, Apr 2, 11:52:46
        
        ? (n/m) (NCFC) - Cart Gap Disco, Apr 2, 12:27:51
- No. You haven't missed the point. We are totally and utterly useless away from home. (n/m) (NCFC) - Pit, Apr 2, 10:14:08

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