yeh I see

am probably meaning to say that the bombings were direct retaliation to military action in the Middle East. We can say with a good degree of certainty that if the UK had a non-interventionist foreign policy that the bombings would not have happened. I reckon that today's murderers almost certainly saw it as payback for meddling in the Middle East. So can we say that it was at least an "eye for an eye" situation that prevailed for the terrorists?

Posted By: pat_abb on July 8th 2005 at 02:31:11


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