is there an issue here of Scots law vs English law?
*If* its justiciable under Scots law doesn't the SC have to apply Scots law to an appeal from the CoS?
Or are we going to get a situation where English law is ruled to be superior to Scots law for these purposes? (That'll go down well with the SNP)
Or will we get a fudge where they decide its justiciable but doesn't meet the threshold for being unlawful?
Interesting times.
Posted By: CWC on September 11th 2019 at 15:58:56
Message Thread
- And here’s the reasoned English decision (General Chat) - Old Git, Sep 11, 14:07:03
- Makes sense, the folly of taking it to court in the first place. (General Chat) - megson, Sep 11, 14:19:52
- That seems fairly unequivocal (General Chat) - duke of york, Sep 11, 14:15:17
- Higher *UK* court (General Chat) - Old Git, Sep 11, 14:24:54
- is there an issue here of Scots law vs English law? (General Chat) - CWC, Sep 11, 15:58:56
- Even if the exercise of the power is held to be justiciable (General Chat) - paulg, Sep 11, 14:23:19
- Higher *UK* court (General Chat) - Old Git, Sep 11, 14:24:54
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