Even if the exercise of the power is held to be justiciable

which I doubt very much, how are the questions of fact to be answered? What if there was more than one purpose? Whose purpose? Which purposes are (as a matter of law) "proper" and which "improper"? The whole enquiry is one which a Court couldn't possibly (or at least, I think wouldn't want to) embark upon.

Posted By: paulg on September 11th 2019 at 14:23:19

Message Thread

And here’s the reasoned English decision (General Chat) - Old Git, Sep 11, 14:07:03
- Makes sense, the folly of taking it to court in the first place. (General Chat) - megson, Sep 11, 14:19:52
- That seems fairly unequivocal (General Chat) - duke of york, Sep 11, 14:15:17
  - Higher *UK* court (General Chat) - Old Git, Sep 11, 14:24:54
    - is there an issue here of Scots law vs English law? (General Chat) - CWC, Sep 11, 15:58:56
  - Even if the exercise of the power is held to be justiciable (General Chat) - paulg, Sep 11, 14:23:19

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