Is that correct within the laws of the game?

Is it entirely within the opinion of the umpires to determine how a ball has come to be damaged? As I understand it, to award penalty runs for ball-tampering the umpires have to have seen ball tampering, not just suspect it from the condition of the ball.

I have no opinion one way or another about whether the ball was tampered with, but, it would seem that under the laws, Pakistan have correctly been deemed to have forfeited, whatever the reasons leading up to it.

Posted By: BerlinCanary, Aug 21, 10:20:28