So Man Utd had just 26% of possession and on Saturday

according to CH he knew that "Swansea would have the majority of possession". Isn't that just like accepting they're better than us before a ball is kicked? Does it HAVE to be this way? Would Ferguson have 'accepted' this when manager at Man U? Just can't get my head round this. If two teams are from the same division why be resigned to the fact that the opposition will have more possession? No wonder we're so utterly useless away from home or am I missing the point?

Posted By: Chopper, Apr 2, 10:11:18