Seeing as what you are an intelligent LibDemmer, could you please explain to me the principle behind this proposed mansion tax?
What I don't understand is why it is thought to be fair, rational or progressive to pick on one asset class in particular. Why tax people who've chosen to put their (taxed) income into a house worth ?2m+, but NOT tax people who buy a ?1.75m house and keep ?500k in the bank; or buy a ?1.75m house and a holiday house for ?600k; or buy a ?1.5m house and a couple of Picassos to hang on the walls
Etc etc etc
I just do not understand the principle behind isolating one type of asset as worthy of taxation, and not others
Posted By: Old Git, Sep 21, 11:05:18
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