She would certainly have been violated

It's hard to argue C has culpability - but A certainly does.

However I'm trying to get at the distinction between "who did this wrong" and "to whom has this wrong been done", I guess. The law seems to be all about "what should we do to wrongdoers", and not at all about "what should we do for wrongdoees", to trivialise.

Posted By: Old Man on January 22nd 2015 at 23:09:57


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