Stealing from the rich to give to the poor
How does that work exactly - once you've done it, the formerly rich are now poor and the formerly poor are now rich. Do you then have to steal it back again, and so on ad infinitum?
Posted By: Old Man on December 23rd 2009 at 08:55:02
Message Thread
- Stealing from the rich to give to the poor (General Chat) - Old Man, Dec 23, 08:55:02
- the rich would have to be robbed a lot to be poor (General Chat) - SCC 28, Dec 23, 09:09:38
- and even if you robbed a lot off of the rich (General Chat) - Jumbo1, Dec 23, 09:13:57
- So rob from the rich and give to the poor sufficiently to make both middle class? (n/m) (General Chat) - Old Man, Dec 23, 09:12:48
- Isn't that called the high rate tax band and child benefits?............DAILY MAIL ALERT! (n/m) (General Chat) - megson, Dec 23, 09:27:46
- No, I didn't suggest AIDS-ridden bogus asylum seekers were responsible for anything (n/m) (General Chat) - Old Man, Dec 23, 09:30:08
- And then a programme of small-scale thievery to maintain equilibrium thereafter? (n/m) (General Chat) - Old Man, Dec 23, 09:13:09
- yes a bit like in Liverpool when all the footballers get robbed (n/m) (General Chat) - Jumbo1, Dec 23, 09:14:37
- Isn't that called the high rate tax band and child benefits?............DAILY MAIL ALERT! (n/m) (General Chat) - megson, Dec 23, 09:27:46
- the rich would have to be robbed a lot to be poor (General Chat) - SCC 28, Dec 23, 09:09:38
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