One's a british association, the other european. Haven't seen anything to suggest that th

ey cover far eastern betting markets at all. So, with that in mind, is there any reason why we ought to think this statement actually has any bearing on the case at all?

Didn't we already know that there were no irregular betting patterns in britain and on the continent?

Or am I reading this incorrectly?

Posted By: Arizona Bay, Oct 17, 17:21:16