Why make that point about the loans *having* to be repaid in the statement, when there's clearly something not right about that.
Do RBoS REALLY think a Cullum-owned Norwich might be a too risky a debtor? I'm no financial brainbox, but I'd think that very probably they don't.
So why would they insist that the debt was paid off, immediately, in full? Surely their ideal scenario is that the club continue to pay it off over a long period of time, maximising the amount of interest they can charge? Please correct me here if I'm being hopelessly naive.
Posted By: Arizona Bay, Jul 11, 10:37:07
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