But you said

that objecting to a split infinitive was trying to apply the rules of Latin to an Anglo-Saxon language. But Latin doesn't HAVE a rule about not splitting infinitives. It's just not possible in Latin, so there's no rule. Whatever the reasons are that lie behind objecting to the splitting of infinitives, they aren't "rules of Latin".

Posted By: Old Git, Jul 13, 16:08:05

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