Doesn’t it need to be intentional to be an offence?

If his arm is not in an unnatural position, as was the case here, it’s only an offence if he’s handled it deliberately.

If he was attempting to block the ball with his body, but ballsed it up and it hit his hand, he hasn’t deliberately handballed it as there wasn’t any intent to do so.

All that matters really is that the rules are applied consistently, is this a situation though where VAR would have stuck with the onfield decision either way? Or is the prevailing view that this is deemed deliberate handball regardless of being sure that it was actually deliberate?

Posted By: SimonOTBC, Aug 19, 15:38:12