is there an issue here of Scots law vs English law?

*If* its justiciable under Scots law doesn't the SC have to apply Scots law to an appeal from the CoS?

Or are we going to get a situation where English law is ruled to be superior to Scots law for these purposes? (That'll go down well with the SNP)

Or will we get a fudge where they decide its justiciable but doesn't meet the threshold for being unlawful?

Interesting times.

Posted By: CWC, Sep 11, 15:58:56