nbttt Boycott

so he's basically stating that the reason he voted to leave the EU is because they had "different" legislation to the UK and therefore because he was tried in the EU he wants to ban himself from it, is that the logic?

Because if his logic is to get back our own ability to have our own legal system then that is what was the status quo when he was tried in France, in as far as we had different laws to them? Or were they the same laws and we just interpreted the same different laws differently?

Posted By: Tombs, Sep 10, 16:55:42