She would certainly have been violated

It's hard to argue C has culpability - but A certainly does.

However I'm trying to get at the distinction between "who did this wrong" and "to whom has this wrong been done", I guess. The law seems to be all about "what should we do to wrongdoers", and not at all about "what should we do for wrongdoees", to trivialise.

Posted By: Old Man, Jan 22, 23:09:57