The backpass rule - v simple

"An indirect f-k is awarded to the opposing team if a g.k ...

touches the ball with his hands after it has been deliberately kicked to him by a team-mate"

Was it deliberate? Probably not.

Incidentally, I found the following to be much more clear cut than the muppet-pundits / experts make out:

Direct f-k / penalty awarded if a player "handles the ball deliberately"
Therefore 'ball-to-hand' is usually not an infringement

Posted By: Henclrikus, Dec 30, 00:30:11