BBC headline: post-mortem on woman who died when hit by a car at a bus stop

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What is the f**king point? Seriously? She was hit by a f**king car, for f**k's sake. So - and I should make it clear I am in no way medically qualified - it seems likely to me that the cause of death was, well, said f**king car.

Or is there a realistic prospect that

a) she had a previously undiagnosed aneurysm, or myocardial or intra-cranial condition that cause her death, and
b) it did so so close to the impact of said f**king car that she didn't have time to crumple and fall dead to the ground before the f**king car hit her

Or is it that the precise modality or manner in which said f**king car caused her death would make any difference whatever to:

a) the fact she's dead
b) the fact that being hit by the f**king car in question

Can anyone explain this to me? I'm getting very confused in my dotage.

Posted By: Old Man, Dec 23, 17:43:01