It WAS a deflection, true

But the striker was offside before the deflection (ie when the other Pole hit the shot which the defender then deflected). So was he offside or not? Does it depend on whether he was interfering with play when the shot was first struck? Fuck me, it's another PhD thesis on the offside law coming up.

Posted By: Old Git on June 13th 2008 at 14:03:25


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