Isn?t this to do with the 10% rule?

(if such a thing exists)

My memory may be playing tricks on me, but I read somewhere that under FIFA rules Tevez needs to have play/been involved in 10% of Citeh?s games, otherwise he could apply to have his contract annulled under restraint of trade. I?m assuming that this only applies if he is fit and available for selection.

I ?think? he?s played in 5 of their games so far and with the potential of a few more European games, plus the Carling Cup they will have played more than 50 games so in theory he could leave for nothing at the end of the season.

Posted By: KentonCanary on February 14th 2012 at 14:31:29


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